Uninsured Motorist...does this Make Sense?

[Gulfman]

Does this make sense?

Story told to me by a friend.

• Driver 1 does not have uninsured motorist coverage but has required insurance by the state (maybe he has collision or not?)
• Driver 1 gets hit from behind by Driver 2 (while on the road).
• Driver 2 does not have insurance.
• Driver 2 sues Driver 1 in civil court and somehow WINS a 6 figure judgement?

How is this possible....or is somebody trying to confuse me?

.

 

[BlockO]

it is very possible. but it sounds like your friend is leaving out key details.

for example: did driver 1 pull out into the street before this happened? .... or (highway scenario) perhaps driver 1 suddenly changed lanes without looking before this happened?

ask your friend if driver 1 got cited for failure to yield

 

[djs]

Anything is possible, but this doesn't sound likely.
Were there injuries involved? Only way you could even come close to that number.

Uninsured motorist coverage has nothing to do with this situation, at all. The fact that this is mentioned tells me that there is probably other confusion in the facts of the story.

Driver's 1 insurance coverage would / should have provided legal coverage for driver 1 in court on this. Assuming they did, then if they were found guilty, the insurance would pay up to the policy limits and this would indicate a fault of driver 1.

In many areas, drivers are not cited unless the police witness the action. They don't try to interpret an accident to write a citation, thankfully.

I'm guessing this story is incomplete at least and probably inaccurate as well.

Dan

 

[Gulfman]

Anything is possible, but this doesn't sound likely.
Were there injuries involved? Only way you could even come close to that number.

Uninsured motorist coverage has nothing to do with this situation, at all. The fact that this is mentioned tells me that there is probably other confusion in the facts of the story.

Driver's 1 insurance coverage would / should have provided legal coverage for driver 1 in court on this. Assuming they did, then if they were found guilty, the insurance would pay up to the policy limits and this would indicate a fault of driver 1.

In many areas, drivers are not cited unless the police witness the action. They don't try to interpret an accident to write a citation, thankfully.

I'm guessing this story is incomplete at least and probably inaccurate as well.

Dan

Thanks Dan,

I think you are right. However, If somehow, Driver 2 was able to get a court to find fault with Driver 1, then At that point i would think that Driver 1 would be responsible for money damages? (not sure)

IF THE ABOVE were true, at that point would Driver 1's liability coverage kick in and pay for any damages caused to Driver 2?

(forgive the newby question).

I was under the impression that uninsured motorist covers you ONLY for damages caused by someone without insurance who hits you (when they are at fault) and only covers bodily injury.

 

[hesse]

I was under the impression that uninsured motorist covers you ONLY for damages caused by someone without insurance who hits you (when they are at fault) and only covers bodily injury.

this is correct.

I carry 500/500 uninsured underinsured motorist.

You have no insurance and you hit me. My UM/UIM is what will pay my medical bills since you have no liability to cover it.

some companies will offer uninsured motorist property damage as well

 

[marindependent]

There is not enough information in this story to know enough about what happened.
Was this an intentional act?
Was Driver #1 found to be at fault (at all)?
Were any other vehicles / drivers involved?
Were these drivers in the same household?
What state was this in?
What type of Damage was sustained? BI, Property, Etc?